• JaggedRobotPubes@lemmy.world
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    2 months ago

    Not if they aren’t acting on it, geez.

    If they woke up one day, realized to their horror they wanted to do some fucked up shit, and then just never did, that’s crappy for them to have to deal with, and they’re a champion for not making it anybody else’s problem.

    • kungen@feddit.nu
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      2 months ago

      Nah, pedophilia is a paraphilia. And if someone suffers from pedophilic disorder, it’s kinda impossible for anyone other than healthcare to know that – unless they’ve made some attempts to abuse someone.

      • HatchetHaro@pawb.social
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        2 months ago

        To be fair, paraphilias were listed in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders as disorders before that definition was moved in DSM-5 to paraphilic disorder to be distinct from paraphilia (no longer de facto a disorder).

        Anyway, pedophilia is a paraphilic disorder, which makes it a paraphilia and a mental disorder!

        • kungen@feddit.nu
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          2 months ago

          DSM

          Miss me with that American junk :P But with the same logic, would you also say that gender incongruence is a mental disorder? It’s in the same books, in similar sections. It’s faux pas to call something a mental disorder without focusing on why it’d be that.

          The ICD (and I would hope the DSM) focuses mostly on the distress the patient gets from their condition. Someone’s attraction to kids, without any actions, isn’t enough to get diagnosed, as it’s simply a paraphilia. If they’re distressed by it, or act out, then it’s a diagnostic criteria and something they’d be able to get treatment for.

          • HatchetHaro@pawb.social
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            2 months ago

            Gender incongruence may be in the same book now, but being in the book does not necessarily mean it is a disorder (e.g. paraphilia). In fact, in DSM-5, gender incongruence (they call it gender dysphoria) was actually renamed from “gender identity disorder” to avoid the word “disorder”.

            DSM-5 defines a paraphilic disorder as “a paraphilia that brings distress, or when satisfied, brings harm to self or others” (paraphrased). I think pedophilia fits that description, because “if satisfied”, that’s what we’d consider “bringing harm to others”. Perhaps the ICD has a different definition?

            I mean, I didn’t set the standards or write the books. All of these things have way too much complexity to properly categorize in the ever-shifting standards of society in different geographic and cultural regions, so of course different countries and different experts would treat these things differently. That also means what counts as a “mental disorder” can vary wildly from region to region. I daresay this is a universe where you and I are both right on the matter!

            I’m not sure about the criterion differences between the ICD and DSM-5, and I for sure do not know enough to be an authority on the matter.

  • skozzii@lemmy.ca
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    2 months ago

    What’s with all the anti-republican propaganda on here these days?

    As a Trump supporter this post directly attacks me.

    Edit: The people that took this post seriously should touch some grass

    • Katana314@lemmy.world
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      2 months ago

      Sadly, sarcasm doesn’t translate well in text - and Trump voters have been guilty of saying the most unhinged shit out loud.